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Full Version: Do the Jews / Israel ‘illegally-occupy’ their ancestral homeland and/or “Palestine”?
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The allegation that Israel / the Jews, “illegally occupy Palestine” (the Roman-imposed rename for Israel / Judah), is “Palestinian” Arab falsehood-propaganda falsely-validated by the United Nations with its built-in pro-“Palestinian” Arab bias (see below). There has never been an indigenous “Palestine” / Arab sovereign state in the land of Israel upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to any part of Israel.
 
“Palestinian” Arab reverse-fact propaganda attempts to justify Arab invasion, theft, and illegal-occupation, of the ancestral homeland of the Jewish people - Israel, by alleging the Jews / Israel invaded the land and stole it from the “Palestinian” Arabs. They do this both by falsely-denying the roots of the Jewish people in the Jews ancestral homeland of Israel, and by failing to mention that the “Palestinian” Arabs mostly originate from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers who came to the land of Israel just prior to, and during the British Mandate (see below).
 
People tend to be mislead by the “halo-reputation” United Nations which falsely-validates the accusation of an Israeli illegal-occupation. The U.N. and its structures have for many years had a built-in pro “Palestinian” Arab bias. The “Palestinian” Arabs start-off in U.N. votes by enjoying a block-vote in their favour of up to 56 Arab and additional Islamic-aligned countries (e.g. U.N. member states that are also members of the “Organization of Islamic Cooperation” and follow its policies when voting in the U.N.), and influence of Arab oil money with consequential trading power; compared to Israel being just one country.
 
Israel cannot logically nor in law, illegally -“occupy” the “West Bank: nor Gaza, since they are land of previous indigenous Jewish kingdoms, were retrieved from Egyptian / Jordanian illegal-occupation, and the entity making that false-claim “Palestine” - has never existed as a sovereign state.
 
Israel left Gaza to Palestinian Autonomy in 2005, under the Oslo Accords.
 
Israel cannot logically nor in law, illegally-“occupy” East Jerusalem because:
There has never been a “Palestine” indigenous sovereign state,
Jerusalem was never internationally-designated for any Arab state,
East Jerusalem (Old City) was the capital of previous Jewish Kingdoms,
was retrieved from illegal-Jordanian-occupation in 1967, from which the Jews had been expelled by the Jordanian illegal-occupiers in 1948.
 
Israel cannot logically nor in law, illegally-“occupy” the Golan Heights, since it is land of previous Jewish kingdoms, e.g. the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judah.
 
 
The legal definition of “Occupation” by countries is unclear (see below), but Israel cannot logically nor properly in law, be accused of illegal “occupation” of its own ancestral homeland, and also where the regions concerned, were:
 
1) LAST under the illegal-occupation of a third party: This means prior to the 1967 war, the illegal-occupation by Jordan of the “West Bank” and East Jerusalem, and by Egypt of Gaza.
 
2) Where all the land in question rightfully belongs to the party, here Israel, accused of the alleged “occupation”:
All the land upon which the “Palestinian” Arab colonists reside, is of previous Jewish indigenous sovereign states of the Kingdoms of Israel (Samaria) / Judah.
 
3) Where the claim of “occupation” is made by an alleged-entity “Palestine” which never existed as an indigenous sovereign state, or by the “Palestinian” Arabs who arrived in the land after its indigenous Jews (see below); the “Palestinian” Arabs also not considering themselves a “People” until the 1960’s (see below).
 
There has never been any indigenous “Palestine” / Arab sovereign state upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could either:
 > Base any claim to the land of Israel; or any part thereof.
 > Claim any alleged illegal “occupation”.
 
Israel is the only country to which the all the land in question can rightfully belong, since the last indigenous sovereign state in the land prior to the RE-establishment of Israel in 1948, was the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judah with (what is now East) Jerusalem as its capital, and including the “West Bank”, Gaza, and Golan Heights.
 
Therefore just as Israel / the Jewish people logically cannot:
“Invade”,
Or “steal”,
or “illegally-settle”,
or “be a colony on”,
its OWN ancestral homeland,
it also cannot logically “illegally-occupy” its OWN ancestral homeland.
 
Since the “Palestinian” Arabs arrived in the land of Israel well after its indigenous Jews (see below), this makes the Arabs the “settler-colonists”.
 
“Belligerent Occupation” is a matter of fact resting on the assertion of authority and control not sanctioned by international agreement. International laws on this are complex and lacking in clarity:
http://removethewall.org/wp-content/uplo...n-2009.pdf
 
The legal definition of “Occupation” is therefore unclear, and apparently also fails to consider a verifiable-claim to the land by the alleged-Occupier as a defence to the allegation. Therefore any country recovering land by force to which it has verifiable-claim, may be considered an “illegal occupier”, where political-allegiance is against it in the United Nations.
 
 
“United Nations” and “European Union” bias against Israel:
 
The allegation of an Israeli illegal-occupation of: “Palestine” / “Palestinian Land”, is “Palestinian” Arab propaganda based in denying Jewish roots in the Jews ancestral homeland of Israel, falsely-validated by the “United Nations” and “European Union”. Both of them falsely-treat the Jewish people as “invaders”, consequently as “thieves” and “illegal-occupiers” of land being of the prior Jewish kingdoms of Judah / Israel; likewise-illogically of building “illegal-settlements” (homes) there; with “Palestinian” Arab terrorism considered “resistance to occupation”.
 
Two-Thirds Majority typically-invoked to prevent a U.N. vote passing in favor of Israel:
https://news.un.org/en/story/2018/12/1027881
 
U.N. Anti-Semitic, Anti-Israel bias - “The U.N. and Israel: Key Statistics from UN Watch”:
https://www.unwatch.org/un-israel-key-statistics/


 
The “Palestinian” Arabs falsely-allege Israeli Jews all came from Europe. Some Jews are returnee-exiles, since the Jewish people have Judah heritage (“Jew”=citizen of “Judah” - Judaism is both an ethnicity as well as a religion). Yet the Jewish people are indigenous to their ancestral homeland of Israel, with unbroken presence there from Biblical times:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographi...e_(region)
 
The Jewish people have had prior sovereign states in the land; example:
Post-Biblical history records the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judah (aka Judea) - Map including the “West Bank”, Gaza, and Golan Heights, with its capital of (what is now EAST) Jerusalem / “Old City”; between 110 BCE / 754 BH and 63 BCE / 706 BH:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/c...ingdom.jpg
 
Coins from the Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom of Judah:
 
i) Coin of Alexander Jannaeus, king and high priest of Judea [Hasmonean kingdom] from (103 BCE / 746 BH to 76 BCE / 719 BH):
https://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/ent...r_Jannaeus
ii) Reign of the Hasmonean Kingdom’s last King - King Mattathias Antigonus, c. [approx.] 40 BCE / 682 BH. See (at last looking) the seventh image down, at:
https://www.jewishgiftplace.com/Ancient-Menorahs.html
 
 
The “Palestinian” Arabs claim ALL the land of Israel, and so falsely-claim it is all “occupied”.
 
 
Who were the Arabs living in British “Palestine” Mandate administered Israel?
 
The League of Nations in 1922 resurrecting the name “Palestine” from Roman occupation, authorized a British Mandate; an administrative region ruled by a foreign imperial power. JEWISH citizens of the British Mandate were Palestinian: Irrespective of race or religion citizens of the British Mandate became: “Palestinian”.
Extracts from five British “Government of Palestine” passports,
from which it can be seen that JEWISH citizens of the Mandate were “Palestinian”:
https://www.mediafire.com/file/p6hjhurn7...s.pdf/file
The Media referred to its inhabitants, as:
“Palestinian Arabs”, / “Palestinian Jews”, or as: “Arabs” / “Jews”.
 
The Ottoman Turkish empire did not use any such political name as “Palestine”:
The following image shows the list of Ottoman Turkish provinces called “vilayets”, which the reader can see includes “Syria” but does not include any “Palestine”:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/c...ves%29.png
 
Ottoman-occupied Judah / Israel was within the Ottoman province of “Syria”:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ottoman_Syria
 
The “Palestinian Arabs” dropped the name “Arab” so you should not understand they mostly originate from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers who came to the land of Israel just prior to, and during the British Mandate, to take advantage of higher wages through Jewish returnee-exiles:
https://richardmatherblog.wordpress.com/2015/05/
 
84 out of 100 of the highest incidence Palestinian surnames (Palestine region in 2004), had highest incidence outside that region:
My extract source document:
“Country Origin of Palestinian Arab Surnames upd.pdf” - information source “forebears.io”:
https://www.mediafire.com/file/9d115bv6w...d.pdf/file
 
The “Palestinian” Arabs having considered themselves to be Arab only, this is why they were opposed to being called a “People” until the 1960’s, when they decided it fitted with their intention to steal the land of Israel from its indigenous Jews:
http://www.targetofopportunity.com/pales..._truth.htm
 
 
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