Thank you, Jason. I'm encouraged that you also think this is a purposeful word-play, but I still have a few questions if you have the time and patience:
At first, I thought the Massoretes understood Gen 2,25:עֲרוּמִּ֔ים as the first term (of the Hebrew Language Academy) being used for Adam and Eve.
But the Massoretes also seem to have vocalizedעֲרֻמָּ֔ה with a kubutz in Hosea 2,5 and עֲרוּמִּ֣ים with a shuruq in Job 22,6 so that seemed to indicate that they thought this first term could also mean 'naked'.
And I notice that the second term (Hebrew Language Academy) uses a kubutz followed by the doubling of the mem in the feminine:
So I'm guessing that this same kubutz followed by the doubling of the mem may also appear in the plural of the second term. Is that correct? These similarities in the vocalization of the feminine and plural of the second term with the first term seem to indicate that the first and second terms (of the Hebrew Language Academy) are clearly very closely related words, perhaps even the same word with a wide range of meanings.
Another question on this point:
So, regardless of whether or not Gen 2,25 uses the first or the second term for Adam and Eve, we still must recognize that 'Adam and God both use the third term (עֵירֹ֥ם ) in Gen 3,10.11 for 'naked'. Any thoughts on how the third term is related to the first and second terms? Same root? If so, where do the yod and tzere come from?
Regardless of the origin of the the yod and tzere, this third term might carry a more pejorative meaning in this narrative context.
Sorry if this is too many questions. Thanks for your patience!!!
Quote:The biblical text used the first term for the serpent and the second for Adam and Eve ...
At first, I thought the Massoretes understood Gen 2,25:
But the Massoretes also seem to have vocalized
And I notice that the second term (Hebrew Language Academy) uses a kubutz followed by the doubling of the mem in the feminine:
Quote:עָרוֹם ʿārôm [עֲרֻמָּה ʿărummâ] - naked, nude
So I'm guessing that this same kubutz followed by the doubling of the mem may also appear in the plural of the second term. Is that correct? These similarities in the vocalization of the feminine and plural of the second term with the first term seem to indicate that the first and second terms (of the Hebrew Language Academy) are clearly very closely related words, perhaps even the same word with a wide range of meanings.
Another question on this point:
Quote:The biblical text used the first term for the serpent and the second for Adam and Eve ...
So, regardless of whether or not Gen 2,25 uses the first or the second term for Adam and Eve, we still must recognize that 'Adam and God both use the third term (
Regardless of the origin of the the yod and tzere, this third term might carry a more pejorative meaning in this narrative context.
Sorry if this is too many questions. Thanks for your patience!!!