Preparation of the Passover Lamb

[nili]

Here are some verses 

Isaiah 7:14 talks about a child being born of a virgin
Isaiah 9:6 child being born call the Father 

No. This is wrong. There is no word "virgin" in Isaiah 7:14. ...

^ This.

[Jon]

No. This is wrong. There is no word "virgin" in Isaiah 7:14. The Hebrew word for "virgin" is בְּתוּלָה bəṯûlâ, but the word in that verse is עַלְמָה ʿalmâ. It is the feminine form of עֶ֫לֶם ʿɛ́lɛm, which clearly means "young man." There is nothing there to indicate that a virgin is having a baby.

You've similarly misunderstood Isaiah 9:6, which is talking about the birth of the next king. The next king would be a righteous king, whereas his father was wicked.

Neither of these are messianic prophecies.

hi that’s interesting I didn’t know that there wasn’t a word virgin. I checked it and mostly says maiden, young woman (like u pointed out).

In Isa 9:6 How would you explain that this “son/child” will be called Immanuel. Also is it connected to Isa 7:14 the “son/child”?
עִמָּנוּאֵל
i got this from biblehub. It says “a man” also definition is “with us is G-D”

can you please enlighten me on this? Cos when I see how Isaiah writes: young woman will give birth to a son, he is mighty g-d, the everlasting father and will be called עִמָּנוּאֵל “a man” meaning g-d with us. The Christian view is that God will be born as a man. How would u interpret it?

[searchinmyroots]

Jon,

I don't know why, but you seem to be mixing Chapter 7 with Chapter 9. Each is speaking about a different child. Isaiah 9 says nothing about Immanuel.

Yes the child will be called Immanuel. But if you understand what the Hebrew actually says, it specifically says the young woman, his mother, will call him Immanuel, not anyone else. As far as I know, there is no where in the Christian bible where Mary calls Jesus by the name Immanuel.

The name Immanuel means "G-d is with us". Just like other people in the Hebrew bible whose name mean something. It was reassurance to King Ahaz that G-d will be with them when the 2 kingdoms battle each other. The "sign" is that before the child is old enough to know the difference between good and evil, the 2 Kings of the warring nations will be gone. We know that prophecy came true as it is described in II Kings 15:29-30 and II Kings 16:9

As for Isaiah 9, it is speaking of a mighty one, not necessarily a "god". If you think it is speaking about Jesus, I ask you, when was Jesus called the "everlasting father"? I thought he was the son??

[Jason]

A child named "God is with us" does not mean that the child himself is "God with us." It doesn't say that the child is God. You're reading a LOT into that!

[Jon]

Jon,

I don't know why, but you seem to be mixing Chapter 7 with Chapter 9. Each is speaking about a different child. Isaiah 9 says nothing about Immanuel.

Yes the child will be called Immanuel. But if you understand what the Hebrew actually says, it specifically says the young woman, his mother, will call him Immanuel, not anyone else. As far as I know, there is no where in the Christian bible where Mary calls Jesus by the name Immanuel.

The name Immanuel means "G-d is with us". Just like other people in the Hebrew bible whose name mean something. It was reassurance to King Ahaz that G-d will be with them when the 2 kingdoms battle each other. The "sign" is that before the child is old enough to know the difference between good and evil, the 2 Kings of the warring nations will be gone. We know that prophecy came true as it is described in II Kings 15:29-30 and II Kings 16:9

As for Isaiah 9, it is speaking of a mighty one, not necessarily a "god". If you think it is speaking about Jesus, I ask you, when was Jesus called the "everlasting father"? I thought he was the son

Hi Thanks for the answers I appreciate it. Sorry I couldn’t come on as often due to work.

And sorry for the deviantion in topic. Was supposed to be about the Lamb.

I read Lev 16 regarding about Atonement. 2 lambs were used. In your view are all Lambs supposedly representing the False Egyptian God’s like u mentioned earlier in your post?

[searchinmyroots]

Jon,

I don't know why, but you seem to be mixing Chapter 7 with Chapter 9. Each is speaking about a different child. Isaiah 9 says nothing about Immanuel.

Yes the child will be called Immanuel. But if you understand what the Hebrew actually says, it specifically says the young woman, his mother, will call him Immanuel, not anyone else. As far as I know, there is no where in the Christian bible where Mary calls Jesus by the name Immanuel.

The name Immanuel means "G-d is with us". Just like other people in the Hebrew bible whose name mean something. It was reassurance to King Ahaz that G-d will be with them when the 2 kingdoms battle each other. The "sign" is that before the child is old enough to know the difference between good and evil, the 2 Kings of the warring nations will be gone. We know that prophecy came true as it is described in II Kings 15:29-30 and II Kings 16:9

As for Isaiah 9, it is speaking of a mighty one, not necessarily a "god". If you think it is speaking about Jesus, I ask you, when was Jesus called the "everlasting father"? I thought he was the son

Hi Thanks for the answers I appreciate it. Sorry I couldn’t come on as often due to work.

And sorry for the deviantion in topic. Was supposed to be about the Lamb.

I read Lev 16 regarding about Atonement. 2 lambs were used. In your view are all Lambs supposedly representing the False Egyptian God’s like u mentioned earlier in your post?

You seen t be going all over the place, why not just stick to your opening topic?

Leviticus 16 has nothing to do with "Preparation of the Passover lamb".

You said - "In your view are all Lambs supposedly representing the False Egyptian God’s like u mentioned earlier in your post?"

No, I'm not sure where you got that idea from.

Again, let's stay on topic, you are asking about the Passover lamb.

[nili]

You said - "In your view are all Lambs supposedly representing the False Egyptian God’s like u mentioned earlier in your post?"

No, I'm not sure where you got that idea from.

Again, let's stay on topic, you are asking about the Passover lamb.

In Post #2 you wrote: "... ... The paschal lamb had nothing to do with sin, it was a way of defying the Egyptians by showing them we are going to kill one of their pagan gods. Similar to how the other plagues showed their other pagans gods were useless.

[searchinmyroots]

You said - "In your view are all Lambs supposedly representing the False Egyptian God’s like u mentioned earlier in your post?"

No, I'm not sure where you got that idea from.

Again, let's stay on topic, you are asking about the Passover lamb.

In Post #2 you wrote: "... ... The paschal lamb had nothing to do with sin, it was a way of defying the Egyptians by showing them we are going to kill one of their pagan gods. Similar to how the other plagues showed their other pagans gods were useless.

Yes, but it had nothing to do with Leviticus 16.

I am speaking about the Pashcal lamb, not one that is offered at the Tabernacle.

As you can see, I'm trying to keep the two separate as one has nothing to do with the other.

[nili]

I am speaking about the Pashcal lamb, not one that is offered at the Tabernacle.

As you can see, I'm trying to keep the two separate as one has nothing to do with the other.

Fair enough. By the way, to roughly when do you date the two accounts and by whom were they penned?

[searchinmyroots]

I am speaking about the Pashcal lamb, not one that is offered at the Tabernacle.

As you can see, I'm trying to keep the two separate as one has nothing to do with the other.

Fair enough. By the way, to roughly when do you date the two accounts and by whom were they penned?

I'm not sure I understand your question.

I can see one account as the preparation for the 10th plague.

What is the other one?

Who wrote them? That's a loaded question!