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Daniel 7:14's intent
#1
Mainstream Christians interpret the "him/his" throughout verse 14 to be "The Son of Man" and interpret that to be Jesus.

Most jewish sources I've found also interprets verse 14 to refer to the "Son of Man" and interpret this to collectively be Israel. 

But I've always read the "him" who will have eternal dominion to refer to the last "him" in the previous verse.  That regardless of whom this "Son of Man" represents, he would be brought before the ancient of days and return dominion over the earth to the ancient of days (the world to come). 

Could I get some Hebrew expertise?  Is there a reason so many read the "him/his" to refer to the one(s) being brought BEFORE the ancient of days, rather than referring to the ancient of days himself?  Is there some grammatical intricacies to which I'm ignorant?  

https://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo...pter-7.htm

Quote:13 I saw in the visions of the night, and behold with the clouds of the heaven, one like a man was coming, and he came up to the Ancient of Days and was brought before Him. 
יג חָזֵ֚ה הֲוֵית֙ בְּחֶזְוֵ֣י לֵֽילְיָ֔א וַֽאֲרוּ֙ עִם־עֲנָנֵ֣י שְׁמַיָּ֔א כְּבַ֥ר אֱנָ֖שׁ אָתֵ֣ה הֲוָ֑א וְעַד־עַתִּ֚יק יֽוֹמַיָּא֙ מְטָ֔ה וּקְדָמ֖וֹהִי הַקְרְבֽוּהִי׃

14 And He gave him dominion and glory and a kingdom, and all peoples, nations, and tongues shall serve him; his dominion is an eternal dominion, which will not be removed, and his kingdom is one which will not be destroyed.

יד וְלֵ֨הּ יְהִ֚ב שָׁלְטָן֙ וִיקָ֣ר וּמַלְכ֔וּ וְכֹ֣ל עַמְמַיָּ֗א אֻמַּיָּ֛א וְלִשָּֽׁנַיָּ֖א לֵ֣הּ יִפְלְח֑וּן שָׁלְטָנֵ֞הּ שָׁלְטַ֚ן עָלַם֙ דִּי־לָ֣א יֶעְדֵּ֔ה וּמַלְכוּתֵ֖הּ דִּי־לָ֥א תִתְחַבַּֽל׃
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#2
Try to control the formatting of yours posts. You were using EXTREMELY large fonts in this post. I took out all of the formatting so that it's clean and simple.
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#3
These verses are not Hebrew. They are Aramaic.
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#4
"One like a son of man" (כְּבַר אֱנָשׁ [kəḇar ʾĕnāš]) is a symbol, just as the beasts are symbols. The author of the text doesn't leave us in the dark as to the meaning of the symbols.

For just as he says:

[‎T‎]here before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven.... He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all nations and peoples of every language worshiped him. (Daniel 7:13–14, NIV)

And then he gives the same information in interpretation:

Then the sovereignty, power and greatness of all the kingdoms under heaven will be handed over to the holy people of the Most High. (Daniel 7:27, NIV)

The author sets up a parallel by which we see that the symbol of "one like a son of man" is interpreted to mean "the people of the Most High" (עַם קַדִּישֵׁי עֶלְיוֹנִין ʿam qaddîšê ʿelyônîn). It's talking about the power being handed over to the people of Israel. It's obvious that Jews believe that the Messiah will be the king at the time of the restoration, but the Messiah would simply be a representative of the people before God in his function as both king and priest (intercessor).
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#5
Thank you for your response Jason.  And, I apologize for the format error (I blame my phone).

So, between the Ancient of Days and this figurative Son of Man, is there anything grammatically specifying which "he" is to have eternal 
dominion and glory and a kingdom which will not be destroyed?"

What specifically indicates that Hashem will give Israel that dominion, as opposed to Israel preparing the world and delivering dominion back to Hashem?
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#6
The dominion was given to the one like a son of man - that is, to the people of Israel. I don't really understand your questions beyond this.
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#7
I understand that go be the preferred interpretation. But missionaries will only be reading the english. Verse 13 ends with "he" was brought before "Him." And then verse 14 continues "he" gave "Him." In english alone, it would seem that the subject "he" in both sentences refers to the "Son of Man" figure (Israel) and the object "Him" in both sentences refers to the Ancient of Days (God).

I understand it's simply "interpreted as the subject and object of two adjacent sentences switch places... but is there something in the grammar as written to specifically support that? So one could point to a particular word and say "this form of this word indicates it's talking about this "Him" as opposed to that "him."

Essentially, in the world to come, will the Ancient of Days rule over all mankind, or (ANYONE else) rule and have dominion over people (whether this Son of Man refers to human descendants of Israel as the rabbis interpret or a messiah as the priests interpret)?
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