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The teaching authority of Moses
#1
Hi,
hope you are all doing well. I think I have not been on this forum for 3 years or something, and my old profile has disappeared so I did a new registration. I am doing some research on my own initiative into a passage in Deuteronomy, namely the Deuteronomy 24:1-4 passage, of which it is said in the New Testament: "Moses gave you this precept".

And so for me this raised the question: Is this commandment to be understood as given by G-d (see, I speak hebrew :-) ), or did Moses have some special kind of authority to give commands, which would be as authoritative as if they were spoken from G-d himself?

I have come so far in my investigation, as that one can point to Deuteronomy 4:14 where Moses is commanded to teach the israelites. And as far as I know, that is about it for biblical (i.e. Torah) references.

I have then found this webpage about "Moses seat" which refers to the jewish encyclopedia, quite informative
https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q...ctual-seat
http://jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/1283-almemar
http://jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/3...nd-loosing
I believe he quotes from those 2 resources extensively.

Now this is very interesting, because in the New Testament, a "seat of Moses" is mentioned, but that seems to refer more to a general name for the preaching seat in the synagogue. I am sort of more interested in, how exactly is the authority of Moses understood? And quite specifically, could Moses give new laws, as it seems that he is doing in the Deuteronomy around chapters 23-24.

And a related question: but this may be a bit more difficult and technical:
In the New Testament, Jesus is referred to have said about the Deuteronomy 24:1-4 passage; "Moses gave you this precept, but from the beginning it was not so". What is the force of such a statement? (and, well, if you consider Jesus to be a rabbi, would it be legal for him to make such a statement?)

Yeah, well, I just hope someone here can maybe help me with some resources or maybe just their own opinion about the question.

And ehm well, as for my hebrew knowledge it is still limited to sort of understanding the alphabet, but I guess that's a start :-)

All the best, Peter
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#2
OK firends, I see that this topic could not attract interest. Probably too technical. G-d bless you all
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#3
I think you answered your own question when you made reference to Deuteronomy 4:14.

Is that not enough?

Why does it need to be repeated in other places?

Also, the Hebrew bible says when there are other matters that come up, it is to be decided by the judges, Deuteronomy 17:8-11
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