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Isaiah 53 Verse 10
#11
I mean verse 12.
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#12
(09-02-2020, 02:29 AM)Ismq Wrote: I mean verse 12.

Whatever it says in verse 12 doesn't discount the fact the servant is guilty of sin.

If the servant is guilty of sin in the 53rd Chapter of Isaiah, how can it possibly be about Jesus?
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#13
(09-02-2020, 03:12 AM)searchinmyroots Wrote:
(09-02-2020, 02:29 AM)Ismq Wrote: I mean verse 12.

Whatever it says in verse 12 doesn't discount the fact the servant is guilty of sin.

If the servant is guilty of sin in the 53rd Chapter of Isaiah, how can it possibly be about Jesus?

Sorry, can you explain me what you mean?
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#14
(09-02-2020, 03:26 AM)Ismq Wrote:
(09-02-2020, 03:12 AM)searchinmyroots Wrote:
(09-02-2020, 02:29 AM)Ismq Wrote: I mean verse 12.

Whatever it says in verse 12 doesn't discount the fact the servant is guilty of sin.

If the servant is guilty of sin in the 53rd Chapter of Isaiah, how can it possibly be about Jesus?

Sorry, can you explain me what you mean?

It's very clear -

The servant spoken of in Isaiah 53 is guilty of sin.

Do you believe Jesus was guilty of sin?
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#15
Of course,that is what teaches christian doctrine as it says in 2 cor 5:21:"For he hath made him to be sin for us..."
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#16
(09-02-2020, 07:15 PM)Ismq Wrote: Of course,that is what teaches christian doctrine as it says in 2 cor 5:21:"For he hath made him to be sin for us..."

Believe me, I've never really dug deep into the meanings of what is written in the Christian bible but for me it is clear to see that verse 21 is speaking of Jesus "being" our sin, not being a "sinner".

The servant in Isaiah 53 is guilty of committing a sin. Correct me if I'm wrong, but according to the Christian bible, Jesus was sinless, having never committed a sin.
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#17
Let's see the context of verse 10,What you say about "the servant guilty of sin" can be analyzed in verse 12.the verse 12 "he bore the sin of many"explain then,what is that guilt offering.
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#18
(09-02-2020, 07:15 PM)Ismq Wrote: Of course,that is what teaches christian doctrine as it says in 2 cor 5:21:"For he hath made him to be sin for us..."

I’m a bit curious since your position is at variance with every Christian clergy person I have ever spoken with. I will admit that I have not spoken with clergy in every denomination within Christianity so might I ask you which group, if any, you are a member of?
בקש שלום ורדפהו
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#19
(09-02-2020, 08:03 PM)Ismq Wrote: Let's see the context of verse 10,What you say about "the servant guilty of sin" can be analyzed in verse 12.the verse 12 "he bore the sin of many"explain then,what is that guilt offering.

Well, not really.

The problem is you are relying on interpretations.

The guilt offering was one of the sin offerings offered in the Temple. It was for people who admitted they sinned.

So the context of verse 10 is that the servant sinned and has a choice to amend for it. Also what should be noted is that it is conditional. "If" the servant acknowledges his guilt, then the servant shall see children, prolong his days and G-d's purpose shall prosper in his hand.

The context of verse 12 is that the servant bore the sins of others, it is not saying the servant is guilty of committing a sin. Sort of like how the Jews always bear the sins of those who commit crimes against them. The Romans, the Persians, the Greeks, the Crusades, the Nazi's to name a few.
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#20
But which another hebrew term can be used besides "asham" to convey the idea of offering for sins?
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