Confused about verb genders in Ruth 1:8

[Atbash]

Hello everyone,

I am new and glad to be here. I am also rusty at the Hebrew language. I was going through Ruth, when I got to chapter one, verse eight. It looks like Ruth is talking to her two Moabite daughters-in-law. But when she refers to the kindness that these women have shown both to herself, and to her sons, the verbs change to masculine. Am I missing something here? I appreciate any help. Thanks.

Blessings,
Atbash

[searchinmyroots]

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[Atbash]

Thanks! And to clarify, I meant the verb and the pronoun both switch to masculine. I also just found that this switch happens seven times in Ruth. I wonder if it has anything to do with the blessing that the women proclaim in 4:15, where they declare that Ruth has been to Naomi better than seven sons?

[robrecht]

Welcome, Atbash. Good question. I looked at a couple of commentaries. Apparently this happens several times in the book of Ruth and elsewhere. Some say it is a tendency of later, colloquial Hebrew, but others believe it may be an archaic remnant of an earlier Hebrew dual suffix.

[Atbash]

Thanks!

[Jason]

What verse are you talking about?

Ruth doesn't have Moabite daughters-in-law. Naomi has them. Ruth is one of the daughters-in-law of Naomi.