Since the “Palestinian” Arabs arrived in the land well after the Jews, this makes the Arabs the “occupier/colonist/settlers”; not the Jews. (See use of terms below.) The whole rationale of alleged “illegality” in relation to Israeli home-building / “settlements” is illogical and should not be accepted on its face value.
The Oslo Accords (agreed to by the “Palestinian” Arabs) separate West Bank into Areas A, B, and C; underwhich Israel is permitted to build homes (aka “settlements”) in Area C. The Israeli homes are in Area C as permitted under the Oslo Accords.
The following is how the “Palestinian” Arabs obtained part of the West Bank (40%) and the whole of Gaza:
In 1967 Israel gained control of the West Bank and Gaza Strip (from the previous Jordanian and Egyptian illegal-occupation respectively) and as an attempt by Israel at “land for peace” under the Oslo Accords, Israel later granted the “Palestinian” Arabs autonomy anticipating a peace treaty, until when the land remains Israel’s.
The Oslo II Accord covers both Gaza and the West Bank.
The Oslo Accords divided the West Bank into three administrative divisions - Areas A, B and C, and underwhich Israel is permitted to build homes (aka “settlements”) in Area C:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Bank_..._II_Accord
From the latter source it can be seen that:
Area A is exclusively administered by the “Palestinian Authority” aka “Fatah”, and is approximately 18% of the West Bank.
Area B (Palestinian civil control and joint Israeli-Palestinian security control), is administered by both the Palestinian Authority and Israel, and is approximately 22% of the West Bank.
Area C (full Israeli civil and security control), which contains the Israeli settlements, is administered by Israel and in which Israeli home building is PERMITTED.
People often wonder why the Israeli homes (settlements) are Jewish: The reason is that the “Palestinian” Arabs do not permit Jews in the “Palestinian” Arab-controlled Areas, killing any Jew they find near them - Example:
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2014/j...-west-bank
How did the “Palestinian” Arabs breach the terms of the Accords?
By failing to: Quote (Article XV):
This is quite clear because:
1) The Palestinian Authority aka Fatah lost control of Gaza to Hamas, which fires numerous barrages of rockets at Israeli cities:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palestinian_rocket_attacks_on_Israel
2) The “Palestinian Authority” aka Fatah (funded by the “European Union”) and the “Palestinian Liberation Organization” by Palestinian Law, pay a reward-“pension” (the “Palestinian Authority Martyrs Fund”) for the murder of Israeli Jewish civilians including children:
Here is an example from the “Palestinian” Arab on-going anti-Jewish hate-war, where their propaganda typically refers to any consequential security measures as “Israeli-oppression”:
Israeli girl, Hallel Yaffa Ariel, aged 13, fatally stabbed in her bedroom in West Bank by a Palestinian terrorist, June 30, 2016, The Guardian:
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2016/j...iryat-arba
That part of “Judah and Samaria” now referred to as the “West Bank”, first became known as the “West Bank” when the Jordanians illegally-occupied it in 1948 - See under heading: “Etymology” - West Bank:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Bank
Jordanian illegal-occupation of the West Bank:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jordanian_..._West_Bank
Why do the Jewish people refer to the “West Bank” as: “Judea (aka Judah) and Samaria”?:
What is now known as the “West Bank” (of the Jordan river) was within two prior contemporaneous Jewish indigenous sovereign states. These were: Israel-Samaria (northern Kingdom), and Judah (aka Judea) (southern Kingdom).
Part of it (what is now referred to as the “West Bank”) was within the one kingdom, while the rest of it was within the other kingdom.
(Both of those kingdoms covered an region greater than just what is now referred to as the “West Bank”.)
Map:
i) Jewish Kingdom of Israel-Samaria, including part of the “West Bank”, and Golan Heights, (its final) capital Samaria; between 930 BCE / 1599 BH and 720 BCE / 1383 BH - see map link below.
ii) Jewish Kingdom of Judah, including the rest of the “West Bank”, capital of (what is now East) Jerusalem / “Old City”; between 930 BCE / 1599 BH and 586 BCE / 1244 BH (same map for both kingdoms):
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kingdom_of_Israel_(Samaria)#/media/File:Kingdoms_of_Israel_and_Judah_map_830.svg
Why are the Israeli homes in Judah and Samaria (“West Bank”) falsely-asserted to be “illegal”?:
The reason is that following the Oslo Accords the “Palestinian” Arabs continued to claim ALL the land of Israel (without any objective-historical verification),
with carrying out terrorism,
and also pursued a successful propaganda and political campaign through the United Nations. In the U.N. they have an overwhelming political bias in their favor, as follows:
United Nations anti-Israel policies (copied by the “European Union”) are due to the “Palestinian” Arabs starting-off in U.N. votes by enjoying a block-vote in their favor of up to 56 Arab and Islamic-aligned countries (e.g. U.N. member states that are also members of the “Organization of Islamic Cooperation” and follow its policies when voting in the U.N.), compared to Israel’s one vote. Any veto in the U.N. Security Council to protect Israel has been less-likely under Democratic Party Administrations, e.g. U.N. Security Council resolution 2334 declaring Israel “settlements” illegal, passed when the pro-“Palestinian” Arab administration of President Obama/then Vice President Biden, decided not to use their veto to protect Israel. That resolution is illegal, being in conflict with the international treaty signed by the Israelis and “Palestinian” Arabs - the Oslo Accords.
The West Bank is land of previous Jewish kingdoms (see further the three examples given:
i) Kingdom of Judah, ii) Israel northern Kingdom aka Samaria (known for its final capital city), iii) Hasmonean Kingdom)!
There has never been any indigenous “Palestine” / Arab sovereign state in the land of Israel on which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim on any part of the land of Israel.
Therefore just as Israel / the Jewish people logically cannot:
“Invade”,
or “steal”,
or “illegally-occupy”,
or “be a colony on”,
its OWN ancestral homeland,
it also cannot logically “illegally-settle” its OWN ancestral homeland.
The matter becomes clear when accurate-terms are applied. (Israeli Media arguably create their own “black-eye” for Israel every time they appease and perpetuate false-terms that originate in “Palestinian” Arab propaganda:
> “Israelis” (NOT Israeli “settlers”) (being either: Jews whose ancestors have unbroken-presence in their ancestral-homeland of Israel, or Jewish returnee-exiles).
> “Israeli-homes” (NOT Israeli “settlements”).
> “Israeli village” (NOT Israeli “settlement”). (When referring to more than one abode.)
Jews “Re-settling” their ancestral homeland are therefore “Returnees”.
Israeli “settlers” are either:
> Jews whose ancestors have unbroken-presence in their ancestral-homeland of Israel.
> Jewish-exiles returned to their ancestral-homeland of Israel, who have Judah heritage.
(The clue is in the name: “Jew”=citizen of Judah - Judaism is both an ethnicity as well as a religion.)
The Jews have unbroken presence in their ancestral homeland of Israel since Biblical times, while the Arabs arrived much later (see below).
> “Palestinian-Arab settlers” (NOT “Palestinian villagers”).
> “Palestinian-Arab settlement” (NOT “Palestinian village”) (when referring to more than one abode.)
Who were the Arabs living in British “Palestine” Mandate administered Israel?
“Palestinian” Arab propaganda alleges the Jews / Israel invaded the land, stole it from the “Palestinian” Arabs. They do this both by falsely-denying the roots of the Jewish people in the Jews ancestral homeland of Israel, and by failing to mention that the “Palestinian” Arabs mostly originate from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers who came to the land of Israel just prior to, and during the British Mandate:
https://richardmatherblog.wordpress.com/2015/05/
The “Palestinian” Arabs were opposed to being called a “People” until the 1960’s, when they decided it fitted with their intention to steal the land of Israel from its indigenous Jews:
http://www.targetofopportunity.com/pales..._truth.htm
Political description of Israeli “settlements” (Israeli home-building) on the West Bank, as an “obstacle to peace” / “expansion of “borders” through the alleged building of “illegal-settlements”, in reality is political support for both the “Palestinian” Arab false-claim to Israeli Area C of the West Bank, and for their intention to steal ALL the land of Israel and expel (or murder) the Jews.
The Oslo Accords (agreed to by the “Palestinian” Arabs) separate West Bank into Areas A, B, and C; underwhich Israel is permitted to build homes (aka “settlements”) in Area C. The Israeli homes are in Area C as permitted under the Oslo Accords.
The following is how the “Palestinian” Arabs obtained part of the West Bank (40%) and the whole of Gaza:
In 1967 Israel gained control of the West Bank and Gaza Strip (from the previous Jordanian and Egyptian illegal-occupation respectively) and as an attempt by Israel at “land for peace” under the Oslo Accords, Israel later granted the “Palestinian” Arabs autonomy anticipating a peace treaty, until when the land remains Israel’s.
The Oslo II Accord covers both Gaza and the West Bank.
The Oslo Accords divided the West Bank into three administrative divisions - Areas A, B and C, and underwhich Israel is permitted to build homes (aka “settlements”) in Area C:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Bank_..._II_Accord
From the latter source it can be seen that:
Area A is exclusively administered by the “Palestinian Authority” aka “Fatah”, and is approximately 18% of the West Bank.
Area B (Palestinian civil control and joint Israeli-Palestinian security control), is administered by both the Palestinian Authority and Israel, and is approximately 22% of the West Bank.
Area C (full Israeli civil and security control), which contains the Israeli settlements, is administered by Israel and in which Israeli home building is PERMITTED.
People often wonder why the Israeli homes (settlements) are Jewish: The reason is that the “Palestinian” Arabs do not permit Jews in the “Palestinian” Arab-controlled Areas, killing any Jew they find near them - Example:
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2014/j...-west-bank
How did the “Palestinian” Arabs breach the terms of the Accords?
By failing to: Quote (Article XV):
Quote:“[...] prevent acts of terrorism crime and hostilities [...]” .
This is quite clear because:
1) The Palestinian Authority aka Fatah lost control of Gaza to Hamas, which fires numerous barrages of rockets at Israeli cities:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palestinian_rocket_attacks_on_Israel
2) The “Palestinian Authority” aka Fatah (funded by the “European Union”) and the “Palestinian Liberation Organization” by Palestinian Law, pay a reward-“pension” (the “Palestinian Authority Martyrs Fund”) for the murder of Israeli Jewish civilians including children:
Here is an example from the “Palestinian” Arab on-going anti-Jewish hate-war, where their propaganda typically refers to any consequential security measures as “Israeli-oppression”:
Israeli girl, Hallel Yaffa Ariel, aged 13, fatally stabbed in her bedroom in West Bank by a Palestinian terrorist, June 30, 2016, The Guardian:
https://www.theguardian.com/world/2016/j...iryat-arba
That part of “Judah and Samaria” now referred to as the “West Bank”, first became known as the “West Bank” when the Jordanians illegally-occupied it in 1948 - See under heading: “Etymology” - West Bank:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/West_Bank
Jordanian illegal-occupation of the West Bank:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jordanian_..._West_Bank
Why do the Jewish people refer to the “West Bank” as: “Judea (aka Judah) and Samaria”?:
What is now known as the “West Bank” (of the Jordan river) was within two prior contemporaneous Jewish indigenous sovereign states. These were: Israel-Samaria (northern Kingdom), and Judah (aka Judea) (southern Kingdom).
Part of it (what is now referred to as the “West Bank”) was within the one kingdom, while the rest of it was within the other kingdom.
(Both of those kingdoms covered an region greater than just what is now referred to as the “West Bank”.)
Map:
i) Jewish Kingdom of Israel-Samaria, including part of the “West Bank”, and Golan Heights, (its final) capital Samaria; between 930 BCE / 1599 BH and 720 BCE / 1383 BH - see map link below.
ii) Jewish Kingdom of Judah, including the rest of the “West Bank”, capital of (what is now East) Jerusalem / “Old City”; between 930 BCE / 1599 BH and 586 BCE / 1244 BH (same map for both kingdoms):
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kingdom_of_Israel_(Samaria)#/media/File:Kingdoms_of_Israel_and_Judah_map_830.svg
Why are the Israeli homes in Judah and Samaria (“West Bank”) falsely-asserted to be “illegal”?:
The reason is that following the Oslo Accords the “Palestinian” Arabs continued to claim ALL the land of Israel (without any objective-historical verification),
with carrying out terrorism,
and also pursued a successful propaganda and political campaign through the United Nations. In the U.N. they have an overwhelming political bias in their favor, as follows:
United Nations anti-Israel policies (copied by the “European Union”) are due to the “Palestinian” Arabs starting-off in U.N. votes by enjoying a block-vote in their favor of up to 56 Arab and Islamic-aligned countries (e.g. U.N. member states that are also members of the “Organization of Islamic Cooperation” and follow its policies when voting in the U.N.), compared to Israel’s one vote. Any veto in the U.N. Security Council to protect Israel has been less-likely under Democratic Party Administrations, e.g. U.N. Security Council resolution 2334 declaring Israel “settlements” illegal, passed when the pro-“Palestinian” Arab administration of President Obama/then Vice President Biden, decided not to use their veto to protect Israel. That resolution is illegal, being in conflict with the international treaty signed by the Israelis and “Palestinian” Arabs - the Oslo Accords.
The West Bank is land of previous Jewish kingdoms (see further the three examples given:
i) Kingdom of Judah, ii) Israel northern Kingdom aka Samaria (known for its final capital city), iii) Hasmonean Kingdom)!
There has never been any indigenous “Palestine” / Arab sovereign state in the land of Israel on which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim on any part of the land of Israel.
Therefore just as Israel / the Jewish people logically cannot:
“Invade”,
or “steal”,
or “illegally-occupy”,
or “be a colony on”,
its OWN ancestral homeland,
it also cannot logically “illegally-settle” its OWN ancestral homeland.
The matter becomes clear when accurate-terms are applied. (Israeli Media arguably create their own “black-eye” for Israel every time they appease and perpetuate false-terms that originate in “Palestinian” Arab propaganda:
> “Israelis” (NOT Israeli “settlers”) (being either: Jews whose ancestors have unbroken-presence in their ancestral-homeland of Israel, or Jewish returnee-exiles).
> “Israeli-homes” (NOT Israeli “settlements”).
> “Israeli village” (NOT Israeli “settlement”). (When referring to more than one abode.)
Jews “Re-settling” their ancestral homeland are therefore “Returnees”.
Israeli “settlers” are either:
> Jews whose ancestors have unbroken-presence in their ancestral-homeland of Israel.
> Jewish-exiles returned to their ancestral-homeland of Israel, who have Judah heritage.
(The clue is in the name: “Jew”=citizen of Judah - Judaism is both an ethnicity as well as a religion.)
The Jews have unbroken presence in their ancestral homeland of Israel since Biblical times, while the Arabs arrived much later (see below).
> “Palestinian-Arab settlers” (NOT “Palestinian villagers”).
> “Palestinian-Arab settlement” (NOT “Palestinian village”) (when referring to more than one abode.)
Who were the Arabs living in British “Palestine” Mandate administered Israel?
“Palestinian” Arab propaganda alleges the Jews / Israel invaded the land, stole it from the “Palestinian” Arabs. They do this both by falsely-denying the roots of the Jewish people in the Jews ancestral homeland of Israel, and by failing to mention that the “Palestinian” Arabs mostly originate from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers who came to the land of Israel just prior to, and during the British Mandate:
https://richardmatherblog.wordpress.com/2015/05/
The “Palestinian” Arabs were opposed to being called a “People” until the 1960’s, when they decided it fitted with their intention to steal the land of Israel from its indigenous Jews:
http://www.targetofopportunity.com/pales..._truth.htm
Political description of Israeli “settlements” (Israeli home-building) on the West Bank, as an “obstacle to peace” / “expansion of “borders” through the alleged building of “illegal-settlements”, in reality is political support for both the “Palestinian” Arab false-claim to Israeli Area C of the West Bank, and for their intention to steal ALL the land of Israel and expel (or murder) the Jews.
