08-30-2019, 06:35 AM
I understand that go be the preferred interpretation. But missionaries will only be reading the english. Verse 13 ends with "he" was brought before "Him." And then verse 14 continues "he" gave "Him." In english alone, it would seem that the subject "he" in both sentences refers to the "Son of Man" figure (Israel) and the object "Him" in both sentences refers to the Ancient of Days (God).
I understand it's simply "interpreted as the subject and object of two adjacent sentences switch places... but is there something in the grammar as written to specifically support that? So one could point to a particular word and say "this form of this word indicates it's talking about this "Him" as opposed to that "him."
Essentially, in the world to come, will the Ancient of Days rule over all mankind, or (ANYONE else) rule and have dominion over people (whether this Son of Man refers to human descendants of Israel as the rabbis interpret or a messiah as the priests interpret)?
I understand it's simply "interpreted as the subject and object of two adjacent sentences switch places... but is there something in the grammar as written to specifically support that? So one could point to a particular word and say "this form of this word indicates it's talking about this "Him" as opposed to that "him."
Essentially, in the world to come, will the Ancient of Days rule over all mankind, or (ANYONE else) rule and have dominion over people (whether this Son of Man refers to human descendants of Israel as the rabbis interpret or a messiah as the priests interpret)?