General Discussion The Messiah and Isaiah 53

[Peergint]

I've written up two different discussions that you might find interesting. One is a discussion of chapters 52-54 of Isaiah with an eye to the Hebrew and how it cannot and does not support the claim that Jesus was the Messiah. The second is a general short treatment of why Jews reject the idea that Jesus was the Messiah. Here are the two articles:

http://www.thehebrewcafe.com/articles/isaiah_52-54.pdf
http://www.thehebrewcafe.com/articles/whynot.pdf

I think it's a HUGE and UNPARDONABLE mistake to read Isaiah 53 and claim that it's about Jesus while just ignoring the whole of the chapter that comes before and the one that comes after. In fact, the whole of the book comes to bear on this chapter. If you read Isaiah 53 within the context of Isaiah, you will not understand it to refer to Jesus.

Hello Jason,
Just want to look at something in one of the articles you point to.

In the http://www.thehebrewcafe.com/articles/isaiah_52-54.pdf, there is a statement as follows: Suffice it to say that Isaiah identified the servant as Israel within the servant songs on several occasions (Isaiah 41:8; 44:1, 21; 45:4; 49:3). It should hardly be expected of him to repeat himself yet again when his audience would naturally read it this way. 

I agree that the scriptures quoted here refer indeed to Israel as God's chosen people. However, as he referred to Israel as the servant 5 times in the verses you quote, why would he change tack and not continue to do so? There are many occasions in the Bible where certain statements are made many more times than just 5. I believe that the Bible is God's word, and that all scripture is God breathed, insofar as He inspired man to write it all. Also for example, "And God said" and "Thus says the Lord" is repeated in the Old Testament so many times. I think God was making sure we knew it was Him who was speaking. So why wouldn't God repeat Himself in Isaiah also?


Regarding the following statement:
The focus on gender (and number) in the Hebrew text may seem rather odd to those who do not know Hebrew, but it actually comes as the result of discussions with missionaries and Christian defenders of Isaiah 53 as the messianic text par excellence of the Hebrew Bible.

Would you please explain the idea of male and female in Hebrew? To me, someone who doesn't know Hebrew, I would look at it such as a ship or an aircraft or Nation, as being referred to as "she", "her", etc. Whereas the statement regarding Christians or missionary "defenders" of Isaiah 53 referring to "A" Servant makes sense. If God would have wanted us to think of the Servant as the nation of Israel, why would He say in verses 14 and 15 "His" visage, "His" form, etc?

I'm still reading through these documents, (may take some time as I try to understand it all), but I wanted to ask, do you or have you, I mean the wider people of Israel read the New Testament and especially Revelation as a book of prophecy? Don't mean to ask what some may seem as a silly question, just wanted to know.

Also, as prophecies are throughout the Bible, do you watch to see what prophecies have so far come true? As far as I know, and I certainly do not doubt it, all prophecies have come true, and there are more yet to come. All prophecies refer to Israel or both Israel and Jerusalem. Revelation in the New Testament is especially about the end times which I believe we are now in.

This is very enjoyable. Thank you.