Isaiah 53 Verse 10

[searchinmyroots]

But also remain many questions.the jewish explanations trying to fit israel as the suffering servant are simply not accurate.it is a explanation drive by hystory,culture and politics.

It's not the Jewish explanations, it's what the text actually says.

I'm not sure you are of authority to tell us it ""trying to fit Israel as the suffering servant are simply not accurate".

How can you prove that?

I think you are reading biased material on the internet. Something that says we always thought Isaiah 53 was about the messiah until Christianity came about and then we changed it to mean Israel. Is that what you think?


Besides, that's not what this thread is about. It is about the Hebrew word asham used in verse 10 that discounts Jesus as being the servant. 

You might want to read this article - https://outreachjudaism.org/gods-sufferi...isaiah-53/


Here is a snippet that addresses your assertion -

"The well-worn claim frequently advanced by Christian apologists who argue that the noted Jewish commentator, Rashi (1040 CE – 1105 CE), was the first to identify the suffering servant of Isaiah 53 with the nation of Israel is inaccurate and misleading. In fact, Origen, a prominent and influential church father, conceded in the year 248 CE – eight centuries before Rashi was born – that the consensus among the Jews in his time was that Isaiah 53 “bore reference to the whole [Jewish] people, regarded as one individual, and as being in a state of dispersion and suffering, in order that many proselytes might be gained, on account of the dispersion of the Jews among numerous heathen nations.”