To Veil or Not to Veil

[Jason]

For example, מקצת מעשי התורה, a document discovered at Qumran but only published in the 1990s has illuminated what Paul may have meant by some 'works of the Law' with respect to righteousness. By 'works of the law', Paul is probably referring to some specific commandments (eg, circumcision, kashrut), which he does not consider necessary for his gentile converts. Some of the other early Jewish believers in 'Christianity' thought that gentile converts (to the Jewish God, away from idolatry) should become full Jews by being circumcised and following kashrut. This allows one to rather easily reconcile some negative statements Paul makes about the applicability of some laws being forced on gentiles, while maintaining his positive attitude toward the Law and older covenants in general, and all of the Law for his fellow Jews.

I've also heard this explanation, but I tend to reject it.

I don't think that what Paul was explaining as "out of works of law" (ἐξ ἔργων νόμου [Gal 2.16 among others]), since his treatment of the idea of Torah observance as servitude "to those things which are by nature not gods" (τοῖς φύσει μὴ οὖσιν θεοῖς [Gal 4.8]). He specifies what he counted as servitude (slavery) when he specifically "marveled" that those whom he had preached to were being convinced by Judaizers to observe specific holidays of the year (Gal 4.10), which made Paul think that he had worked in vain (Gal 4.11). In fact, he stated clearly that the Torah was a guardian to lead you to the Messiah, and once faith has come you are no longer under the guardian (Gal 3.25) and "if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under the law" (Gal 5.18).

Paul's position on the Torah was very clear, and it had nothing to do with sectarian practices in Qumran or anywhere else.