Daryavesh - I much appreciate your response.
The reason for the Syrian reaction to which you refer is likely because under the Ottoman Turkish occupation of Eretz Ysrael, the Ottomans never used any such political term as "Palestine" which has never existed as any indigenous sovereign state. Rather, Ottoman occupied Eretz Ysrael was within the Ottoman province of "Syria" (an area aka "Southern Syria") - Observe the map of Ottoman Syria" on the right side of the following webpage:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ottoman_Syria
The Amended Palestinian National Charter (1968) - English, Article 5 defines the “Palestinians” as Arab:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -
“Article 5: The Palestinians are those Arab nationals [...]”
Extract source:
http://ecf.org.il/media_items/677
- - - - End of extract - - - -
Why did the “Palestinian” Arabs decide to falsely-claim they are native to the land of Israel?
The purpose of League of Nations (later the United Nations) Mandates such as the one awarded to Great Britain, was to develop the territory for the benefit of its native people:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -
“Two governing principles formed the core of the Mandate System, being non-annexation of the territory and its administration as a “sacred trust of civilisation” to develop the territory for the benefit of its native people.”
Extract source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/League_of_Nations_mandate
- - - - End of extract - - - -
Why did the British Mandate document 1922 after providing for a “national home for the Jewish people”, follow with a provision different for the “existing non-Jewish communities” (the Arabs); compared to the provision it made for the Jews?
Both the Balfour Declaration 1917 and the British Mandate document 1922, quote:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -
Regarding the Jews:
“[...] the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, [...]”
(Continued) Regarding the “existing non-Jewish communities” (the Arabs):
“[...] it being clearly understood that nothing shall be done which may prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine [...]”
Source for Balfour Declaration 1917:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Balfour_Declaration
Source for League of Nations Mandate document (English) 1922:
https://avalon.law.yale.edu/20th_century/palmanda.asp
- - - - End of extract - - - -
Why then the different wording for the Arabs compared to the Jews? For the following reasons:
1) League of Nations Mandates were for developing the Mandate territory for the benefit of its native people:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/League_of_Nations_mandate
2) The Jews were considered native to the land, while at the time it was well-known the Arabs in the land mostly originated from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers:
See the following sources:
i) “Arab Immigration to Historic Palestine: A Survey”, by Richard Mather:
https://richardmatherblog.wordpress.com/2015/05/
ii) “Arab Migration Shaped Palestinian Society” - The Ettinger Report.com:
http://theettingerreport.com/arab-migrat...n-society/
The reason for the Syrian reaction to which you refer is likely because under the Ottoman Turkish occupation of Eretz Ysrael, the Ottomans never used any such political term as "Palestine" which has never existed as any indigenous sovereign state. Rather, Ottoman occupied Eretz Ysrael was within the Ottoman province of "Syria" (an area aka "Southern Syria") - Observe the map of Ottoman Syria" on the right side of the following webpage:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ottoman_Syria
The Amended Palestinian National Charter (1968) - English, Article 5 defines the “Palestinians” as Arab:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -
“Article 5: The Palestinians are those Arab nationals [...]”
Extract source:
http://ecf.org.il/media_items/677
- - - - End of extract - - - -
Why did the “Palestinian” Arabs decide to falsely-claim they are native to the land of Israel?
The purpose of League of Nations (later the United Nations) Mandates such as the one awarded to Great Britain, was to develop the territory for the benefit of its native people:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -
“Two governing principles formed the core of the Mandate System, being non-annexation of the territory and its administration as a “sacred trust of civilisation” to develop the territory for the benefit of its native people.”
Extract source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/League_of_Nations_mandate
- - - - End of extract - - - -
Why did the British Mandate document 1922 after providing for a “national home for the Jewish people”, follow with a provision different for the “existing non-Jewish communities” (the Arabs); compared to the provision it made for the Jews?
Both the Balfour Declaration 1917 and the British Mandate document 1922, quote:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -
Regarding the Jews:
“[...] the establishment in Palestine of a national home for the Jewish people, [...]”
(Continued) Regarding the “existing non-Jewish communities” (the Arabs):
“[...] it being clearly understood that nothing shall be done which may prejudice the civil and religious rights of existing non-Jewish communities in Palestine [...]”
Source for Balfour Declaration 1917:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Balfour_Declaration
Source for League of Nations Mandate document (English) 1922:
https://avalon.law.yale.edu/20th_century/palmanda.asp
- - - - End of extract - - - -
Why then the different wording for the Arabs compared to the Jews? For the following reasons:
1) League of Nations Mandates were for developing the Mandate territory for the benefit of its native people:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/League_of_Nations_mandate
2) The Jews were considered native to the land, while at the time it was well-known the Arabs in the land mostly originated from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers:
See the following sources:
i) “Arab Immigration to Historic Palestine: A Survey”, by Richard Mather:
https://richardmatherblog.wordpress.com/2015/05/
ii) “Arab Migration Shaped Palestinian Society” - The Ettinger Report.com:
http://theettingerreport.com/arab-migrat...n-society/