Israel Is lack of factual information why some Jews believe “Palestinian” Arab propaganda?

[Robert]

Typical examples of “Palestinian” Arab falsehood propaganda, together with a brief rebuttal:
 
The Jews:
 
i) Invaded a place called “Palestine”:
Proper name = Israel / Judah.
“Palestine” is the Roman attempted-rename, only twice in history used as a name for the land, but by foreign imperial powers: the Romans, and the British.
There never has been any indigenous “Palestine” sovereign state.
(Why call it “Palestine”?: Because it would not make such effective propaganda to accuse the JEWS of stealing “JUDAH”!)...

Perhaps I'm the victim of Arab falsehood propaganda, but I have the impression that the Jewish scriptures depict the tribes of Israel fighting against the other peoples of Canaan from the very beginning of their entry into the promised land. Indeed, aren't some ancient Palestinians (פלסטינים ,פַּלֶשְׂתִינַאִי) actually referred to in the Bible as the Philistines (פְּלִשְׁתִּים֙)?

And it's not like Hadrian invented the term Palestinian Syria. Already Herodotus referred to this region as the (part of) Syria called Palestine (Συρίη ἡ Παλαιστίνη καλεομένη).

Thank you for your reply. 
Yes, indeed the Bible does describe the Children of Israel being under the command of G-d to take the Promised land Canaan, from the Canaanites. 

It also mentions the separate people within that land along its coast, called the Philistines, whose region was referred to as: 
Hebrew: פלשת , “Pleshet”, 
Latin: “Palæstina”, 
Greek: “Philistia”: 
https://www.britannica.com/place/Palestine


“Philistia” boundaries: From its south (approx. today’s Gaza) from Wadi El-Arish, to its North the Yarkon River (approx. today’s Jaffa), at its East the Kingdom of Judah, and to its West the Mediterranean Sea:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/c...30_map.svg

The Palestinian Arabs have no connection with either the ancient Canaanites or the ancient Philistines; neither of whom exist today.

Some contributors and websites either erroneously or dishonestly purport that Herodotus’ mention of “Palestine” was to the whole of the land of Israel. Rather, Herodotus was referring to an area much smaller than the land of Israel, to the region of the Philistines (“Philistia”) (as should be clear from the historian's use of the description "sea-coast"): 
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“These Phoenicians [...] now inhabit the sea-coast of Syria; that part of Syria and as much of it as reaches to Egypt, is all called Palestine.”

 
Translation extract source:
 
HERODOTUS , Book VII: chapter 89:
http://penelope.uchicago.edu/Thayer/E/Ro...s/7b*.html
 
Alternative link:
https://www.loebclassics.com/view/herodo...ode=reader
 
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