07-13-2022, 03:41 PM
Blue Bird,
Well, I only want to go by what G-d's word says in the Hebrew bible. I don't want my feelings or opinions to get in the way of what He is teaching me.
So if it repeats a common theme such as what is written in Isaiah 1, II Chronicles 6 and 7, Daniel 4 and I Kings 8 for example, then that is where my heart is.
So let's move on to another topic.
This is something I do not understand, why Jesus is referred to as Immanuel. I know Matthew 1 seems to quote Isaiah 7:14 as a reference to Jesus (I know Immanuel means "G-d is with us" but many Hebrew names have meaning. Joshua means G-d saves but the Christian bible doesn't call him Joshua), but a careful look at the passage says some things that don't add up in my opinion.
For instance -
If you read what is going on in it's entirety, it is about a child that will be born and there will be a sign to give reassurance to King Ahaz. The way I see it, the sign is written in verses 15 and 16, not 14. A sign is something you can see and verses 15 and 16 explain it very well -
15 - Cream and honey he shall eat when he knows to reject bad and choose good 16 - For, when the lad does not yet know to reject bad and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread, shall be abandoned."
It's clear to me that is a comforting sign for King Ahaz for the time, not verse 14 as a sign for something that may happen hundreds of years later. What kind of comfort would that be?
Also, verse 14 specifically says "and she shall call his name Immanuel."
Please correct me if I am wrong, but I cannot find anywhere in the Christian bible where Mary calls Jesus Immanuel. I also do not understand why Christian bibles change the word from "she" to "they". I also don't see where anyone in the Christian bible calls Jesus Immanuel, except for Matthew's reference. So who are they, which of course isn't the correct definition.
Well, I only want to go by what G-d's word says in the Hebrew bible. I don't want my feelings or opinions to get in the way of what He is teaching me.
So if it repeats a common theme such as what is written in Isaiah 1, II Chronicles 6 and 7, Daniel 4 and I Kings 8 for example, then that is where my heart is.
So let's move on to another topic.
This is something I do not understand, why Jesus is referred to as Immanuel. I know Matthew 1 seems to quote Isaiah 7:14 as a reference to Jesus (I know Immanuel means "G-d is with us" but many Hebrew names have meaning. Joshua means G-d saves but the Christian bible doesn't call him Joshua), but a careful look at the passage says some things that don't add up in my opinion.
For instance -
If you read what is going on in it's entirety, it is about a child that will be born and there will be a sign to give reassurance to King Ahaz. The way I see it, the sign is written in verses 15 and 16, not 14. A sign is something you can see and verses 15 and 16 explain it very well -
15 - Cream and honey he shall eat when he knows to reject bad and choose good 16 - For, when the lad does not yet know to reject bad and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread, shall be abandoned."
It's clear to me that is a comforting sign for King Ahaz for the time, not verse 14 as a sign for something that may happen hundreds of years later. What kind of comfort would that be?
Also, verse 14 specifically says "and she shall call his name Immanuel."
Please correct me if I am wrong, but I cannot find anywhere in the Christian bible where Mary calls Jesus Immanuel. I also do not understand why Christian bibles change the word from "she" to "they". I also don't see where anyone in the Christian bible calls Jesus Immanuel, except for Matthew's reference. So who are they, which of course isn't the correct definition.