Isaiah 9

[searchinmyroots]

He exaggerates the mistranslation. on 1:00 he says all those verbs are in the past tense.
However, classical hebrew does not have a past tense.
See: Blueletterbible

He explained it is a perfect tense.

What about all of the other places in the Hebrew bible where the same words are used and they are translated in the "past tense"?

What about the connection to King Hezekiah and what his name is translated to?

It's not just about the tense.

Why don't you make a comment on Youtube and see what the replies may be?

Blueletterbible is a Christian source. While they might provide some insight, I'll stick with the Jewish sources who speak the language the Hebrew bible was written in.

This will explain it in fine detail - https://uriyosef.files.wordpress.com/202...sa9_56.pdf

And here is another source which confirm what Rabbi Singer said -

https://www.ancient-hebrew.org/roots-wor...-verbs.htm

Tense

There are four tenses in Hebrew verbs, perfect, imperfect, participle and imperative. In the English language the verb tenses are related to time; past, present and future, while the Hebrew verbs are all related to action. The perfect tense is a completed action and in most cases is related to the English past tense (he cut). The imperfect tense is an incomplete action and is closely related to the English present and future tenses (he cuts or he will cut).

When a Hebrew verb is prefixed with the letter vav it means "and," but it also reverses the tense of the verb. For example, the verb אמר (amar) means "he said," and is in the perfect tense, but when it is written as ואמר (v'amar) it means "and he will say."