Isaiah 9

[Robert]

He exaggerates the mistranslation. on 1:00 he says all those verbs are in the past tense.
However, classical hebrew does not have a past tense.
See: Blueletterbible

The Christians falsely claim that Isaiah 9:5 (Jewish verse numbering) is a prophesy but the point is that the classical Hebrew does not support a future tense. Thus, when translated into English, which does have tenses, an honest translation has to be rendered accordingly.

To honestly translate it as future it is sufficient that you believe it refers to a future messias. That does not necessarily be the Christian one.
See Wikipedia

For those who place honesty as an important pillar of any moral religion, they may wish to consider the information on the following webpage, that is instead of interpreting Jewish Scripture to suit their own different faith while disrespecting Judaism: 
https://jewsforjudaism.org/knowledge/art...saiah-95-6