Hello everyone,
As I've said before, I'm reading through Exodus and trying to understand the text and asking questions. I've posted a few questions now and had some great responses! Here is my latest one.
Exodus 4:24-26 says this:
This is not my first time coming across this obscure text and I remember a university professor talking about it. He mentioned that this is one of the most cryptic passages in the Torah/Bible and it is very unclear what the proper interpretation should be. Indeed, when I read it, so many questions are raised. For example, why on Earth would the Lord want to put Moses to death just after sending him on a mission to free the slaves in Egypt (I assume that "he" and "him" in 24. refers to Moses)? And then Zipporah circumcises her son which prompts God to release Moses. Why is this the response to God trying to kill Moses? And who is "his" in 25. (she "cast it to his feet")? Moses or God? And of course, what does "For you are a bridegroom of blood to me" mean? Is she saying this to God or Moses? And why does she qualify that with "concerning the circumcision"? So many questions!
But even with these technical questions aside, this passage is obviously quite significant to Judaism since this seems to have established the well-known tradition of circumcision. Why is this? From the point of view of a neophyte like myself, it seems quite strange that such a short and obscure passage would have the power to establish such a deeply rooted and engrained tradition that survives even today.
In fact, it raises a few "meta" questions that stem from the combination of these two series of questions. For instance, concerning how circumcision started in Judaism, is it fair to say that the original Hebrews who were around when this passage was written and made available to adherents had a deeper understanding of its meaning than we do? Not only in terms of the text itself and what it meant at the time, but perhaps the traditions that were practiced at the time (maybe circumcision or something like it was already being practiced by some or all), perhaps other texts that elaborated on it or helped to understand its meaning (perhaps that are lost to history), perhaps certain explanations that were passed down orally, perhaps by Moses himself (I understand he is the author of Exodus) and are now forgotten? It just seems (to me) like this passage was meant to be couched in a certain context/understanding that only existed at the time as it seems like it's missing important information that would make it much more clear.
Anyway, that's my thoughts/questions on this passage for now. Your responses are of course very welcome.
As I've said before, I'm reading through Exodus and trying to understand the text and asking questions. I've posted a few questions now and had some great responses! Here is my latest one.
Exodus 4:24-26 says this:
Exodus Wrote:24. Now he was on the way, in an inn, that the Lord met him and sought to put him to death. 25. So Zipporah took a sharp stone and severed her son's foreskin and cast it to his feet, and she said, "For you are a bridegroom of blood to me." 26. So He released him. Then she said, "A bridegroom of blood concerning the circumcision."
This is not my first time coming across this obscure text and I remember a university professor talking about it. He mentioned that this is one of the most cryptic passages in the Torah/Bible and it is very unclear what the proper interpretation should be. Indeed, when I read it, so many questions are raised. For example, why on Earth would the Lord want to put Moses to death just after sending him on a mission to free the slaves in Egypt (I assume that "he" and "him" in 24. refers to Moses)? And then Zipporah circumcises her son which prompts God to release Moses. Why is this the response to God trying to kill Moses? And who is "his" in 25. (she "cast it to his feet")? Moses or God? And of course, what does "For you are a bridegroom of blood to me" mean? Is she saying this to God or Moses? And why does she qualify that with "concerning the circumcision"? So many questions!
But even with these technical questions aside, this passage is obviously quite significant to Judaism since this seems to have established the well-known tradition of circumcision. Why is this? From the point of view of a neophyte like myself, it seems quite strange that such a short and obscure passage would have the power to establish such a deeply rooted and engrained tradition that survives even today.
In fact, it raises a few "meta" questions that stem from the combination of these two series of questions. For instance, concerning how circumcision started in Judaism, is it fair to say that the original Hebrews who were around when this passage was written and made available to adherents had a deeper understanding of its meaning than we do? Not only in terms of the text itself and what it meant at the time, but perhaps the traditions that were practiced at the time (maybe circumcision or something like it was already being practiced by some or all), perhaps other texts that elaborated on it or helped to understand its meaning (perhaps that are lost to history), perhaps certain explanations that were passed down orally, perhaps by Moses himself (I understand he is the author of Exodus) and are now forgotten? It just seems (to me) like this passage was meant to be couched in a certain context/understanding that only existed at the time as it seems like it's missing important information that would make it much more clear.
Anyway, that's my thoughts/questions on this passage for now. Your responses are of course very welcome.