Isaiah 53 Verse 10

[searchinmyroots]

So in your belief, G-d in human forum became sin.

It's what the word asham means in verse 10 and that meaning is given in Leviticus 5, that's the whole of it.

You can't change the meaning of the word.

No, according to II Corinthians 5:18-21, God was in Christ and made him who knew no sin (Christ) to be sin for us. And, I Peter 2:24 states that Christ bore our sins in his own body on the tree. That tells me that God made Jesus' body, not God, to be sin, on the cross, not before.  This is why I believe he cried, "My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?" because at that time he became a guilty sinner, after having never committed the sin himself.

If you read my personal introduction, I say that I am excluded from all branches of Christianity. My refusal to put any Trinity doctrine above direct statements of scripture is part of that.  I also do not accept the doctrine of substitutionary or vicarious atonement, or the doctrine of inherited original sin.  The NT teaches something different.

RabbiO, if the date on the scroll is as you say, then my supposition about Rabbi Akiva is clearly wrong.

Yes, sounds like another brand of Christian theology that really has no part of the teachings of Judaism or the Hebrew bible.