Bearing sins

[rosends]

You have a few things to discuss here. The first is your reliance on translation but that, I guess, can't be helped. The second is your not understanding who is speaking and about what in most of Isaiah 53. The idea that the nation of Israel suffered is borne out by who is speaking -- foreign kings (through much of, but not all of 53) and their assessment of how the nation has suffered the punishments without having done the sins -- the sins were done by the foreign nations and Israel paid the penalty.

Next, you have to include other verses that say explicitly that the nation is suffering the punishment that should have been visited on others (verse 8, "For he was cut off from the land of the living
Through the sin of my people, who deserved the punishment"). It says nothing about what will happen to those other nations after their debt-punishment is paid off by the nation of Israel. But because this is understood to refer to a future, messianic age, according to some, those nations will realize their error and either be destroyed or repent.

I'm not sure what, exactly, you are attempting to claim. Verse 11 uses the s-b-l root to mean "bears" https://www.sefaria.org/Isaiah.53.11?lan...n&lang2=en
as does verse 4. Verse 12 uses the n-s-a root
https://www.sefaria.org/Isaiah.53.12?lan...n&lang2=en

Yes, I got the words mixed up because they are both translated "bear" in English. Thanks for your patience. The n-s-a word I looked up the usage for is the "bore" of verse 12, as you state.

What I am attempting to claim is that none of the other verses that use this n-s-a word (or the s-b-l word for that matter: Lamentations 5:7) in regards to sin do so in the sense that you are applying the meaning to the nation Israel. The nation of Israel has suffered from the sinful actions of others, but when and how can you say that Israel bore the punishment or the guilt of those sinners? In fact, in his video, Tovia Singer was saying (if I remember right) that Israel fulfilled this sin-bearing role by suffering sinful actions, using his family's murder by the NAZIs as his example.  According to all the other usages of this phrase in the Hebrew Bible, that is not what it means.

I don't see anything in the text that indicates that foreign kings are speaking of Israel in Isaiah 53. In fact, Isaiah 52:15 says that the kings will shut their mouths because of what they see. So, to support that claim, I think that an argument has to be made from the content of the chapter. The use of n-s-a seems to me an argument against that claim.

start by abandoning the idea of chapters -- that is a later insertion by Christian editors. If you were to read an ancient scroll containing the book of Isaiah, there would be no break between what you think of as 52 and 53, so the verse "who would believe" is a continuation. If you follow the pronouns, and see that the "who would believe" is a restated quote said by the people in the verse directly before it and the pronouns of "he" call back to the identified servant a few verses earlier (and the text repeatedly and explicitly identifies the servant as Israel).

Next, you have to confront the question of how one "bears" someone else's sins. The simplest explanation is that the punishment that she be levied on the actual sinner is put on the nation of Israel, so the attacks and murders are that punishment (this contributes to the double meaning of "Our suffering that he endured" because it points both the the "suffering that should belong to us" and also "the suffering that we caused"). Take a look here (on the right side)
https://www.sefaria.org/Isaiah.53.4?lang...i&lang2=en