Who buried with whom? Isaiah 53:9

[ThomasDGW]

I note that you are trying to prove meaning in Isaiah by citing texts from the gospels which have no validity in Judaism. If someone tries to prove meaning in the gospels by citing Harry Potter, I hope you give it as much credence.

I think most people understand that the meaning in Isaiah has only a certain possible range, going from natural and explicit to strained. I think most people understand that if a second text claims to describe the same event as the first, the second text cannot show or alter the meaning of the first text, so the idea of a second text "trying to prove" the meaning of the first text is out of the question. The only question is: Does the description of the event given in the second text fit into the range of possible meanings of the first text?

What I demonstrated is that the description in the second text lands right on top of the natural and explicit meaning of the first text in a most coincidental way, countering the counter-missionary claim that the second text cannot be describing the same thing as the first text. I thus proved the accuracy and validity of the second text based on the accepted accuracy and validity of the first text.

If you don't agree and want to counter my claim, your task is to show that this is not true.