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Genesis 3:22
Why in genesis 3:22 it says "us"?: "Behold man has become like one of "us" having the ability of knowing good and evil,and now,lest he strecht forth his hand and take also from the tree of life and eat and live forever".
I was just reading this tonight in the Babylonian Talmud (Sanhedrin 38b):

הנך למה לי כדרבי יוחנן דא"ר יוחנן אין הקב"ה עושה דבר אא"כ נמלך בפמליא של מעלה שנאמר (דניאל ד, יד) בגזירת עירין פתגמא ובמאמר קדישין שאילתא

Quote:The Gemara asks: Why do I need these instances of plural words? Why does the verse employ the plural at all when referring to God? The Gemara explains: This is in accordance with the statement of Rabbi Yoḥanan, as Rabbi Yoḥanan says: The Holy One, Blessed be He, does not act unless He consults with the entourage of Above, i.e., the angels, as it is stated: “The matter is by the decree of the watchers, and the sentence by the word of the holy ones” (Daniel 4:14).

The heavenly council of gods was a common idea at the time, but there was one God for Israel or one highest God above the others. Eventually this idea evolved into a more rigorously defined monotheism.
I figured you'd be familiar with how the Qur'an says "we" and "us" about God all the time, and no one bats an eye. Why is it a problem for the Torah to do the same?

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