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Israel: Origins of the name “Palestine” and its usage in trying to negate the name Israel
#1
“Palestine” is the Roman-imposed rename of Israel / Judah, used by the Romans for attempting to negate Israel as the name for the land, and today used likewise by the “Palestinian” Arabs and their primarily anti-Semitic supporters.
 
The name “Palestine” applied only to foreign rule of the land of Israel, first by the Romans who imposed that name to negate Israel / Judah as names for the land, and later for the Mandate awarded to Great Britain between 1922 and 1948. The Romans had resurrected the name “Palestine” (Philistine) from the region much smaller than Israel, in which the then defunct Philistines had been. Both of those usages of the name were rule by a foreign imperial power. There has never been any indigenous “Palestine” / Arab sovereign state in the land of Israel.
 
Neither is the name “Palestine” any valid geographical name; a correct geographical name for the region is “Levant”.
 
From where did “Palestine” as a name imposed on the land of Israel, come?
The Romans imposed the name “Palæstina” (“Palestine”) on Roman-occupied Judah / Israel, resurrecting the name from the defunct much smaller region of: Hebrew: פלשת , “Pleshet”, Latin: “Palæstina”, Greek: “Philistia” (https://www.britannica.com/place/Palestine), within which had previously been the Philistine five city kingdoms.
[“Philistia” boundaries: From its south (approx. today’s Gaza) from Wadi El-Arish, to its North the Yarkon River (approx. today’s Jaffa), at its East the Kingdom of Judah, and to its West the Mediterranean Sea]:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/c...30_map.svg
 
The Philistines had been destroyed by the Babylonians under Nebuchadnezzar in 603/4 BCE / 1263 BH–1262 BH.
See Page 13 of:
New Discoveries Among the Philistines: Archaeological and Textual Considerations
by Michael G. Hasel - Southern Adventist University:
http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=2&ved=0ahUKEwi0z4HymIjUAhVFrI8KHc06BdsQFgg_MAE&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.southern.edu%2Fadministration%2Farchaeology%2Fdoc%2Fscholarly_publications%2FDiscoveries.pdf&usg=AFQjCNGY8133rf_oqSlPwTADSwve-v5jzg
 
The “Palestinian” Arabs have no connection with the ancient Philistines.
 
It was following the disappearance of the Philistines, that the Roman occupiers of Israel/Judah resurrected the name “Palestine” (Filistine), to impose it on the much larger region of Jewish Israel/ Judah:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -

Quote:“In the aftermath of the war [the Simon bar Kokhba revolt against the Roman Empire in 132 C.E. / 505 B.H. to 135 C.E. / 502 B.H., Roman Emperor] Hadrian consolidated the older political units of Judea, Galilee, and Samaria into the new province of Syria Palaestina (Palestine) [...] derived from the ancient sea-faring Philistine people who occupied the coastal plain around the first millennium B.C.E.”
 
Extract source:
http://www.newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Bar_Kochba
 
- - - - End of extract - - - -
 
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -

Quote:“[...] After Roman times the name [“Palestine”] had no official status until after [...] the end of rule by the Ottoman Empire, when it was adopted for one of the regions mandated to Great Britain [...]”.
 
Extract source:
https://www.britannica.com/place/Palestine
 
- - - - End of extract - - - -
 
The “Palestinian” Arabs falsely-allege Israeli Jews all came from Europe. Some Jews are returnee-exiles, since the Jewish people have Judah heritage (“Jew”=citizen of “Judah” - Judaism is both an ethnicity as well as a religion). Yet the Jewish people are indigenous to their ancestral homeland of Israel, with unbroken presence there from Biblical times:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographi...e_(region)
 
The only valid name for the land belongs to the Jewish indigenous sovereign states before the Re-establishment of Israel in 1948, which are “Israel” or “Judah”.
 
Internationally-recognised history shows that the last indigenous sovereign state in the land of Israel (Roman occupier imposed-name “Palestine”), prior to the RE-establishment of Israel in 1948, was the post-Biblical Jewish Hasmonean Kingdom. It included the "West Bank", Gaza, and Golan Heights. Capital (what is now East) Jerusalem / “Old City”; between 110 BCE / 754 BH and 63 BCE / 706 BH - Map:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/c...ingdom.jpg
 
The Ottoman Turkish empire did not use any such political name as “Palestine”, but rather Ottoman-occupied Judah / Israel was within the Ottoman province of “Syria”:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ottoman_Syria
 
The following image shows the list of Ottoman Turkish provinces called “vilayets”, which the reader can see includes “Syria” but does not include any “Palestine”:
https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/c...ves%29.png
 
By the end of 19th and early 20th centuries the “Syria” province of the Ottoman Turkish empire included the following administrative districts:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -

Quote:“[...] the southern sub-provinces of Ottoman Syria administrative region, includ[ed] by the end of 19th and early 20th century
the Mutasarrifate of Jerusalem,
the Nablus Sanjak
and Acre Sanjak (under Beirut Vilayet from 1888 and previously under Syria Vilayet) [...]”.

[Note: I have added some carrier returns.]
 
Extract source:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Southern_Syria
 
- - - - End of extract - - - -
 
 
“Palestine” was not used as a political name by the Turkish Ottoman Empire for their occupation of Judah / Israel. Later usage of the name “Palestine” is likely due to the Romans having imposed the name “Palestina” (Palestine) on Roman-occupied Jewish Judah / Israel.
Although some 19th century maps for the land are entitled “Palestine” (the Roman-imposed rename), on many such maps the land itself is correctly labeled: “Judea” and “Samaria” (the two former Jewish Kingdoms).
 
Bible: The Jewish Scriptures (aka “Old” Testament) refers to a “Philistia” region which was much smaller than Israel (see “Philistia” boundaries above).
The Christian Scriptures (aka “New” Testament) does NOT refer to “Palestine”, but does have a reference to the Land of “ISRAEL” - See Matthew 2:21.
 
Revisionist history propaganda on some websites and in the Media, falsely-backdate (retroactively-apply) the name “Palestine” to prior Roman times when the land had been called Israel / Judah; even backdating to earlier Biblical times when the land was called “Canaan”.
 
 
The League of Nations in 1922 resurrected (as had the Romans) the name “Palestine”, this time for the British Mandate, but now imposing it on an even larger region (below):
 
There has never been an indigenous “Palestine” / Arab sovereign state in the land of Israel upon which the “Palestinian” Arabs could base any claim to any part of Israel.
Following the Ottoman Turkish defeat in the First World War, the League of Nations in 1922 resurrecting the name “Palestine” from Roman occupation, authorized a British Mandate; an administrative region ruled by a foreign imperial power, it was an area that later would be today’s: Jordan, Israel, and the Palestinian Territories - Please compare the second and third maps down:
http://www.shamrak.com/Masada2000-Histor...estine.htm
 
JEWISH citizens of the British Mandate were Palestinian: Irrespective of race or religion citizens of the British Mandate became: “Palestinian”.
https://www.mediafire.com/file/p6hjhurn7...s.pdf/file
The Media of the time referred to Mandate inhabitants, as:
“Palestinian Arabs”, / “Palestinian Jews”, or as: “Arabs” / “Jews”.
 
The “Palestinian Arabs” dropped the name “Arab” so you should not understand they mostly originate from Foreign-Arab-Migrant-Workers who came to the land of Israel just prior to, and during the British Mandate, to take advantage of higher wages through Jewish returnee-exiles - See “Arab Immigration to Historic Palestine: A Survey”, by Richard Mather:
https://richardmatherblog.wordpress.com/2015/05/

 
The “Palestinian” Arabs having considered themselves to be Arab only, this is why they were opposed to being called a “People” until the 1960’s, when they decided it fitted with their intention to steal the land of Israel from its indigenous Jews:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Demographi...e_(region)
 
The British Mandate an “administrative region”:
- - - - Start of extract: - - - -

Quote:“The Mandatories, as opposed to colonial authorities, administered the territories in accordance with the terms of the mandate and on behalf of the League of Nations. [...]”.
 
Extract source:
Page 70, Max Planck Yearbook of United Nations Law, edited by Armin Von Bogdandy, Rüdiger Wolfrum, Christiane E. Philipp.
Saved to:
https://www.mediafire.com/file/hjjtefiac...w.pdf/file
 
- - - - End of extract - - - -
 
 
Israel was Re-established in 1948 following a United Nations Partition Plan under resolution 181; a two-state solution. The Jews accepted it, but it requires more than one party to constitute an agreement. The “Palestinian” Arab response was to reject it, and commence a civil war 1947 to instead take ALL the land of Israel, and ethnically-cleanse or murder the Jewish population.
 
In 1948 the Arab countries invaded with the same objectives as the “Palestinian” Arabs, but lost the war. Jordan illegally-occupied both the “West Bank”, and also East Jerusalem from which the Jordanians expelled the Jews. Egypt illegally-occupied the Gaza strip. (By the way, neither of them offered these areas to the “Palestinian” Arabs.)

 
Once the “Palestinian” Arabs had tricked Israel into giving them autonomy of part of the “West Bank” and the whole of Gaza under the Oslo Accords, they since:
 > Do not sincerely negotiate any peace treaty.
 > Make an unverifiable false-claim to ALL the land of Israel.
 > Attack Israeli Jewish civilians as policy including children.
No wonder anti-Semites display such emotional-support for the “Palestinian” Arabs (!), and for that psuedo-name “Palestine”.
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