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| questions concerning Exodus 4:24-26 (God tries to kill Moses) |
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Posted by: gib65 - 11-03-2023, 09:31 PM - Forum: Judaism General
- Replies (10)
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Hello everyone,
As I've said before, I'm reading through Exodus and trying to understand the text and asking questions. I've posted a few questions now and had some great responses! Here is my latest one.
Exodus 4:24-26 says this:
Exodus Wrote:24. Now he was on the way, in an inn, that the Lord met him and sought to put him to death. 25. So Zipporah took a sharp stone and severed her son's foreskin and cast it to his feet, and she said, "For you are a bridegroom of blood to me." 26. So He released him. Then she said, "A bridegroom of blood concerning the circumcision."
This is not my first time coming across this obscure text and I remember a university professor talking about it. He mentioned that this is one of the most cryptic passages in the Torah/Bible and it is very unclear what the proper interpretation should be. Indeed, when I read it, so many questions are raised. For example, why on Earth would the Lord want to put Moses to death just after sending him on a mission to free the slaves in Egypt (I assume that "he" and "him" in 24. refers to Moses)? And then Zipporah circumcises her son which prompts God to release Moses. Why is this the response to God trying to kill Moses? And who is "his" in 25. (she "cast it to his feet")? Moses or God? And of course, what does "For you are a bridegroom of blood to me" mean? Is she saying this to God or Moses? And why does she qualify that with "concerning the circumcision"? So many questions!
But even with these technical questions aside, this passage is obviously quite significant to Judaism since this seems to have established the well-known tradition of circumcision. Why is this? From the point of view of a neophyte like myself, it seems quite strange that such a short and obscure passage would have the power to establish such a deeply rooted and engrained tradition that survives even today.
In fact, it raises a few "meta" questions that stem from the combination of these two series of questions. For instance, concerning how circumcision started in Judaism, is it fair to say that the original Hebrews who were around when this passage was written and made available to adherents had a deeper understanding of its meaning than we do? Not only in terms of the text itself and what it meant at the time, but perhaps the traditions that were practiced at the time (maybe circumcision or something like it was already being practiced by some or all), perhaps other texts that elaborated on it or helped to understand its meaning (perhaps that are lost to history), perhaps certain explanations that were passed down orally, perhaps by Moses himself (I understand he is the author of Exodus) and are now forgotten? It just seems (to me) like this passage was meant to be couched in a certain context/understanding that only existed at the time as it seems like it's missing important information that would make it much more clear.
Anyway, that's my thoughts/questions on this passage for now. Your responses are of course very welcome.
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| When the United Nations appears to vacuum facts away |
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Posted by: Robert - 10-29-2023, 08:30 AM - Forum: Israel
- Replies (2)
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On October 27, 2023 the United Nations General Assembly held a debate on a resolution (which was passed) regarding Gaza. The U.N. Secretary-General Antonio Guterres appeared to excuse the "Palestinian" Arab Hamas invasion and their barbaric acts, as being due to the U.N's trumped-up charge against Israel of illegal-occupation. In his speech (which gave the impression of having been drafted for him by some sort of "Palestinian Propaganda Central", he stated:
Quote:"It is important to also recognize the attacks by Hamas did not happen in a vacuum. The Palestinian people have been subjected to 56 years of suffocating occupation, [...]”.
Source:
October 24, 2023, [heading:] "Israel accuses UN chief of justifying terrorism for saying Hamas attack 'didn't happen in a vacuum' ":
https://abcnews.go.com/US/wireStory/isra...-104278066
I have discussed the falsehood of an alleged Israeli / Jewish “illegal-occupation”, here:
https://www.thehebrewcafe.com/forum/show...hp?tid=780
I have also discussed the built-in anti-Israel bias of the United Nations, here:
https://www.thehebrewcafe.com/forum/show... - pid5327
There is currently [October 29, 2023] an Israeli incursion into Gaza.
Let's take a short look at the recent background:
October 7, 2023:
Child casualties at the Kfar Aza kibbutz referred to in the following source:
[Heading:] “[...] how Kfar Aza kibbutz massacre unfolded”:
https://www.thetimes.co.uk/article/dbcc3...7a53190209
[Heading:] "Evidence on Display at Israel’s Forensic Pathology Center Confirms Hamas’ Atrocities":
https://themedialine.org/top-stories/evi...trocities/
The U.N. has expressed concern about the current Israeli incursion into Gaza, as reported here:
October 29, 2023: [heading:} "United Nations warns about dire conditions as Gaza Strip is being strangled by Israel’s extreme siege":
https://www.telegraphindia.com/world/uni...id/1976072
However, I believe the U.N. should understand that unlike their friends and allies the "Palestinian" Arabs/Hamas, Israel does not target civilians and that,
the current Israeli incursion 'didn't happen in a vacuum'.
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| Meaning of "I will be what I will be" |
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Posted by: gib65 - 10-27-2023, 04:01 PM - Forum: Judaism General
- Replies (5)
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Hello everyone,
Like I said in my intro, I'm reading through Exodus and posting questions as I come upon them. My question for this post is, what does "I will be what I will be" mean?
From Exodus 3.14-15:
Exodus Wrote:14. God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'" 15. And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.
Most people recognize this phrase as "I am that I am," but this translation (https://www.chabad.org/library/bible_cdo...pter-3.htm) has it "I will be what I will be" (future tense). Is the latter more accurate? And what does it mean? How would this meaning contrast to that of "I am that I am" (if we can ascribe a meaning to the latter).
I always took "I am that I am" to mean "I am existence" or "I am the foundation/essence of being"... as in God just is existence... or maybe that in order to give existence to creation, he had to give of himself (so the world is made from God). But putting it in future tense adds a hint of "becoming" or "I am not limited to any particular form; I can (and will) be anything".
Then I also recognize that this is God's answer to Moses's question "and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?" God is telling Moses what he should say to the Hebrew slaves. This is what God thinks they need to hear. It may be non-answer. It may be like saying "Never mind what my name is. I'll just be whatever I will be."
Then again, God bothers to let Moses know that "This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation." <-- This seems like he is trying to emphasize the permanence of his name, which ties it back to the essence of existence (so long as existence is, so will be his name), so the emphasis on the future might just be to emphasize that existence isn't just is, it is always. I suppose this fosters a sense of confidence in this God... as in, you can rely on me being the ultimate power of existence not just today but for all time.
Is the meaning of this phrase still debated today? Do Jewish scholars all agree on a meaning? What's your thoughts on what this phrase means?
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