(04-04-2021, 06:02 PM)searchinmyroots Wrote:In exodus 34:33-35 it doesn't prove that moses never had a face covering on when he was with the israelites.so as paul says,moses put the veil so the israelites cannot gaze when the bright of his face fade away.(04-04-2021, 05:00 PM)Ismq Wrote:(04-04-2021, 01:11 PM)searchinmyroots Wrote:(04-04-2021, 04:44 AM)Ismq Wrote:(04-04-2021, 12:50 AM)searchinmyroots Wrote: Thank you for all of your replies. it's interesting to hear of your thoughts on the verses.But that verse does not say that he put the veil "when he spoke with the israelites".
So is Paul saying - "Moses, who would put a veil over his face to keep the Israelite's from gazing at the end of what was fading away"
The problem I see with that is Moses never had a veil or covering on his face when he either spoke to the Israelite's or when he spoke with G-d. The text clearly says when he put the covering on and it never was when he spoke to either of them.
So how could the Israelite's be gazing at Moses face covering if he never had it on when he spoke to them?
What was fading away? It couldn't possibly be the Torah that was just given moments ago, could it?
Which verse are you referring to Ismq, the one in 2 Corinthians or the one in Exodus?
Corinthians,of course.
Okay, thanks.
So it says Moses would put a veil over his face to keep the Israelite's from gazing.
Moses never had a face covering on when he was with the Israelite's.
So in your opinion, as per the Christian bible, what does the veil stop the Israelite's from gazing at?
To Veil or Not to Veil
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