04-05-2021, 03:05 AM
(04-05-2021, 02:56 AM)Ismq Wrote:(04-04-2021, 06:02 PM)searchinmyroots Wrote:In exodus 34:33-35 it doesn't prove that moses never had a face covering on when he was with the israelites.so as paul says,moses put the veil so the israelites cannot gaze when the bright of his face fade away.(04-04-2021, 05:00 PM)Ismq Wrote:(04-04-2021, 01:11 PM)searchinmyroots Wrote:(04-04-2021, 04:44 AM)Ismq Wrote: But that verse does not say that he put the veil "when he spoke with the israelites".
Which verse are you referring to Ismq, the one in 2 Corinthians or the one in Exodus?
Corinthians,of course.
Okay, thanks.
So it says Moses would put a veil over his face to keep the Israelite's from gazing.
Moses never had a face covering on when he was with the Israelite's.
So in your opinion, as per the Christian bible, what does the veil stop the Israelite's from gazing at?
I don't see anything in 2 Corinthians that says "cannot gaze when the bright light of his face fade away."
It says -
"gazing at the end of what was fading away. 14But their minds were closed. For to this day the same veil remains at the reading of the old covenant. It has not been lifted, because only in Jesus can it be removed."
What was fading away? The next few lines seem to indicate it was what Paul calls the old covenant.
Dana's post explains it quite well.
To me, if this is that is the message that is given, it is a twisting of scripture as the covering had nothing to do with the Israelite's minds being closed.