Israel The Quran says that the land of Israel belongs to the Jews

[Robert]

"[...]  altered the Torah [...]":
In the noble Quran the Islamic prophet is referring to those he believes, read the written Jewish Scripture but teach it inappropriately; he does NOT mean that the Scriptural text has been distorted / corrupted (Noble Quran, Surah 3 The House of Imran, v. 78).
Further, the Arabic word “tahrif” used in the noble Quran has in recent times been interpreted to mean “corrupt”, but means either: “alteration” or “misinterpretation”, and past Islamic scholars translated it to mean rather: “misinterpretation”:
http://www.judaism-islam.com/islam-teach...that-mean/

The Tanakh presents accounts that diverge from those in the Quran regarding God and His prophets. As a result, the majority of Muslim scholars hold the view that the current form of the Tanakh has been subject to corruption or alteration.

That appears to be an accurate summary of the Islamic view:

'[...] for a Muslim, the authenticity of the Torah and the Gospels depends on their correspondence to the Qur'an.'

Extract source:
Final sentence in the "Conclusion" to: 
"The Qur'anic View of the Corruption of the Torah and the Gospels (in English)": 
https://www.academia.edu/6709722/The_Qur...n_English_

(As I have pointed out in my previous post) there there is another view among Islamic commentators, that the reference to "corruption" is rather an allegation of “alteration” or “misinterpretation”, rather than an allegation of textual change.
There has been no such: "textual change", or: "corruption", "alteration", "misinterpretation", of the Jewish Scriptures.
Further, in the Jewish Scriptures, the Covenant is everlasting. 

Where such difference of belief occurs between the two sister religions of Islam / Judaism, those of each of the faiths while having their own beliefs, should nevertheless respect the beliefs of the other.